In both the conditions, x = y. Thusly, f is one-one.
Again for onto:
????
f(x) = { 1−????
1+????
For x < 0
, ???? < 0
, ???? ≥ 0
\[y\text{ }=\text{ }f\left( x \right)\text{ }=\text{ }x/\left( 1-x \right)\text{ }y\left( 1-x \right)\text{ }=\text{ }x~\] or on the other hand x(1+y) = y
or on the other hand x = y/(1+y) … (1)
For x ≥ 0
\[y\text{ }=\text{ }f\left( x \right)\text{ }=\text{ }x/\left( 1+x \right)\text{ }y\left( 1+x \right)\text{ }=\text{ }x~\] or on the other hand x = y/(1-y) … (2)
Presently we have two distinct upsides of x from both the case.
Since y ∈ {x ∈ R : – 1 < x < 1}
The worth of y lies between – 1 to 1.
In the event that y = 1
x = y/(1-y) (not characterized)
In the event that y = – 1
x = y/(1+y) (not characterized)
So x is characterized for every one of the upsides of y, and x ∈ R This shows that, f is onto.